To the Editor:
In regards to the recently passed restrictions on abortion in Texas, a number of questions do not seem to have been addressed. Among them:
If a woman has the right to not have her body used against her will by an already born private party, why does she not have the same right where the unborn are concerned?
If an already born private party does not have the right to use the body of a woman against her will, why are the unborn being allowed to do this?
If the state is forbidden to force a woman, against her will, to surrender her body to an already born private party, what is the basis for forcing her, against her will, to continue a pregnancy by denying her access to an abortion?
Julie A. Robichaud